Nursing Elites

1. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

• A. Physician
• B. Physician Assistant
• C. Combat medic
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

2. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?

• A. The amylase and lipase serum levels are decreased
• B. The white blood cell count (WBC) is decreased
• C. The conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin levels are decreased
• D. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) serum level is decreased

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are specific markers for pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count (WBC), is more indicative of an improvement in infection rather than pancreatitis. Choices C and D, decreased bilirubin levels and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels respectively, are not specific markers for pancreatitis improvement.

3. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?

• A. Chewing tobacco
• B. Low-fat diet
• C. Chronic alcoholism
• D. Exposure to industrial chemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

4. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

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