the nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3

1. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct anatomical position for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis is the second intercostal space, right sternal border. This is where the aortic valve is best auscultated, and the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the murmur of aortic stenosis is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum.

2. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

3. The nurse is caring for the client recovering from a percutaneous renal biopsy. Which data indicate that the client is complying with client teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lying flat in the supine position for 12 hours after a renal biopsy is essential to prevent bleeding and promote recovery. This position helps apply pressure to the biopsy site, reducing the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuing oral fluids restriction, changing the dressing, and activating the patient-controlled analgesia pump do not directly indicate compliance with the crucial post-biopsy teaching of maintaining the supine position.

4. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.

5. What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.

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