Nursing Elites

1. After a pericardiocentesis, what interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
• B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
• C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pericardiocentesis, the nurse should implement multiple interventions to monitor the client's condition closely. Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour is crucial to detect any immediate changes that may indicate complications. Evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm is important to identify any arrhythmias that may occur due to the procedure. Recording the amount of fluid removed is essential to calculate fluid balance and ensure accurate monitoring of the client's status. Therefore, all the interventions mentioned are necessary to detect and manage any potential issues post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-procedural care and should be implemented to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

3. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
• B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
• C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
• D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.

4. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

• A. Preparation
• B. Training
• C. Mobilization
• D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitive activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.

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