the practical nurse course is a training program conducted in phases that cover what period of time
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin) because it is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin R has a rapid onset of action, making it suitable for this acute situation. Novolin L insulin (Choice A) is not typically used for continuous infusion in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin N insulin (Choice C) is an intermediate-acting insulin and is not ideal for rapid correction needed in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin U insulin (Choice D) is an ultra-long-acting insulin and is not appropriate for the immediate correction required in this scenario.

4. The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.

5. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

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