Nursing Elites

1. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

2. Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?

• A. Physician
• B. Physician Assistant
• C. Combat medic
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

4. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

• A. Protein
• B. Sodium
• C. Cholesterol
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.

5. The hypertonicity of the muscles in an infant with cerebral palsy causes scissoring of the legs. The nurse teaches the mother that the preferred way to carry the infant is in a sitting position:

• A. Astride one of her hips
• B. Strapped in an infant seat
• C. Wrapped tightly in a blanket
• D. Under the arm using a football hold

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carrying the infant astride one of her hips helps keep the legs apart and can help reduce muscle tightness. This position allows for better support and alignment, preventing further muscle contractures. Strapping the infant in an infant seat, wrapping tightly in a blanket, or using the football hold under the arm would not provide the same benefits and may even exacerbate muscle tightness in a child with cerebral palsy.

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