Nursing Elites

1. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes dirty
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with Listerine before collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.

3. The client has failed to conceive after many attempts over a three-year time period and asks the nurse, “I have tried everything. What should I do now?” Which statement is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
• B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
• C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
• D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. In this situation, the client is seeking guidance on fertility issues, not related to intravenous fluids, surgical dressing changes, medication levels, or meal monitoring. The nurse should provide supportive and empathetic guidance, suggesting further options like consulting fertility specialists or exploring additional treatments.

4. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

5. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?

• A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
• B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
• C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
• D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.

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