the client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip an intravenous anticoagulant the health care provider orders wa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.

2. When assessing a client for an endocrine dysfunction, which question should the nurse ask?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Have you had any unexplained weight loss?” Unexplained weight loss can be a common symptom of various endocrine disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes. This weight loss is often despite an adequate or increased appetite. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be directly associated with endocrine dysfunction. Pain in the legs when walking could be related to musculoskeletal issues, changes in bowel movements may suggest gastrointestinal concerns, and joint pain is more commonly linked to rheumatologic conditions rather than primary endocrine disorders.

3. A client takes an antidepressant and oral contraceptives. Which herbal supplement should the nurse educate the client about as a potential drug-herb interaction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: St. John’s Wort is the correct answer because it can interact with antidepressants and oral contraceptives, potentially affecting their efficacy. Iron supplement, garlic, and green tea do not typically interact with antidepressants or oral contraceptives to the same extent as St. John’s Wort.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with prolonged antibiotic use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin K. Prolonged antibiotic use can disrupt the gut flora, which is responsible for synthesizing Vitamin K. This disruption can lead to a Vitamin K deficiency and an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin A, B6, and C deficiencies are not typically associated with prolonged antibiotic use.

5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

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