ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Explain to the client that it is too early to have an injection for pain
- B. Call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders
- C. Reposition the client for greater comfort and turn on the television as a distraction
- D. Prepare the injection and administer it to the client early because of the severe pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
2. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
- A. The pancreas
- B. The adrenal cortex
- C. The adrenal medulla
- D. The anterior pituitary gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.
3. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
- A. Army Nurse Corps officer
- B. First Sergeant
- C. E6, E7, or E8
- D. E3, E4, or E5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.
5. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?
- A. Esophagus
- B. Stomach
- C. Duodenum
- D. Jejunum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
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