Nursing Elites

1. How do the automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters aid in various aspects?

• A. Maintaining patient accountability
• B. Tracking patient movement
• C. Managing health service logistics systems
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters play a crucial role in maintaining patient accountability by tracking patient movement and aiding in the management of health service logistics systems. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Option A is incorrect because the systems do more than just maintaining patient accountability. Option B is incorrect as it focuses solely on tracking patient movement, missing the broader scope. Option C is also incorrect as it only addresses the management of health service logistics systems and overlooks the other functionalities provided by the systems.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Military appearance/physical condition.' The task 'Conduct physical training' aligns with the category of 'Military appearance/physical condition,' as it involves overseeing physical training activities related to maintaining a certain physical standard. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'Accountability' pertains to being answerable for one's actions, 'Personal/professional development' focuses on individual growth and learning, and 'Individual training' is specific to training on a personal level, none of which directly relate to the task of conducting physical training in the context of military appearance and physical condition.

3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

• A. Constipation
• B. Dizziness
• C. Headache
• D. B, C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

4. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the heparin drip prior to initiating the Coumadin
• B. Check the client’s INR prior to beginning Coumadin
• C. Clarify the order with the health care provider as soon as possible
• D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

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