Nursing Elites

1. The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?

• A. Paracentesis
• B. Chest tube insertion
• C. Lumbar puncture
• D. Biopsy of the pancreas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.

2. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?

• A. Collect early in the morning, first voided specimen
• B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
• C. Collect 5 to 10 ml of urine
• D. Discard the first flow of urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.

3. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?

• A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
• B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
• C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
• D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.

4. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Personal/professional development.' This category involves educating individuals in various aspects, including history and traditions. In this case, educating soldiers in the history and traditions of the service falls under personal/professional development rather than the other options provided. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses on responsibility and answerability, not education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains more to specific skill development rather than broader education on history and traditions. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' is related to maintaining physical standards and image, which is not directly relevant to educating soldiers in history and traditions.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

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