Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?

• A. Rice
• B. Rye
• C. Wheat
• D. Barley

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rice. Rice is a gluten-free grain, making it safe for individuals with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D (Rye, Wheat, and Barley) contain gluten and are not suitable for individuals with celiac disease, as gluten can trigger adverse reactions in their bodies.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 'Military appearance/physical condition' typically involves conducting physical training to ensure personnel meet certain physical standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Accountability deals with being answerable for one's actions, personal/professional development focuses on individual growth and advancement, and individual training refers to specific skill development rather than physical training.

3. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. One of the reasons hospital patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be is because:

• A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill
• B. Hospital routines interfere with the correct timing of medications
• C. Drugs used today are more toxic and have more side effects
• D. Responsibility for monitoring this is shared by various members of the healthcare team

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments, which increases the risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice B is incorrect because hospital routines do not specifically interfere with the timing of medications in relation to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect because the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not directly relate to an increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice D is incorrect as sharing responsibility for monitoring does not inherently increase the risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospital patients.

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