Nursing Elites

1. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 'Military appearance/physical condition' typically involves conducting physical training to ensure personnel meet certain physical standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Accountability deals with being answerable for one's actions, personal/professional development focuses on individual growth and advancement, and individual training refers to specific skill development rather than physical training.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

3. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Combat lifesaver. A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives specialized training in advanced first aid procedures, beyond basic first aid care. This training equips them to provide crucial medical assistance in emergency situations where immediate medical personnel may not be available. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically refer to nonmedical members trained in advanced first aid care beyond basic procedures.

4. The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals
• B. Explain the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods
• C. Teach the client how to perform gentle perianal care
• D. Encourage the client to see a psychologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing option B, explaining the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods, is the correct intervention to reduce IBS symptoms. Flatus-forming foods can worsen bloating and discomfort in individuals with IBS. Option A, instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals, may be helpful for other conditions but is not a primary intervention for IBS. Option C, teaching perianal care, is not directly related to reducing IBS symptoms. Option D, encouraging the client to see a psychologist, may be beneficial for managing stress related to IBS but is not the initial intervention to reduce symptoms.

5. Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:

• A. Acute cholecystitis
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy
• C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
• D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly utilized for patients experiencing acute exacerbations of Crohn’s disease to provide necessary nutrition and rest the bowel. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enteral feedings are not typically indicated for acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, or ulcerative colitis in remission.

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