Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

2. When patients diagnosed with schizophrenia suffer from anosognosia, they often refuse medication, believing that:

• A. Medications provided are ineffective.
• B. Nurses are trying to control their minds.
• C. The medications will make them sick.
• D. They are not actually ill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anosognosia is a lack of insight that affects patients with schizophrenia, leading them to deny or lack awareness of their illness. This lack of awareness often results in patients refusing medication because they genuinely believe they are not ill and do not need treatment. It is crucial for healthcare providers to approach such situations with understanding and empathy, recognizing the impact of anosognosia on treatment adherence.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.

4. During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, which intervention is most appropriate for a patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to engage in group activities.
• B. Provide a structured and low-stimulus environment.
• C. Allow the patient to set their schedule.
• D. Engage the patient in high-energy physical activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

5. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.

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