which of the following statements should a nurse recognize as true about defense mechanisms select all that apply
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ATI Mental Health

1. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may have heightened sensitivity to stimuli and may struggle with organization and decision-making. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli can help reduce triggers and maintain a sense of control for the patient. It is essential to create a calm and predictable setting to support the individual in managing their symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect as group activities may overwhelm the patient due to increased stimuli. Choice C is not the most appropriate because unstructured physical activities may exacerbate the manic symptoms. Choice D is not recommended as detailed and complex tasks can be overwhelming and may contribute to increased stress and agitation in a manic episode.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

Similar Questions

A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.
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