Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize during discharge instructions?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid foods high in tyramine. Clients taking MAOIs should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Tyramine is found in aged, fermented, or spoiled foods. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium, calcium, and sodium restrictions are not specifically required for clients taking MAOIs.

2. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?

• A. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative.
• B. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem.
• C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative.
• D. Assess the facts of the situation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's initial step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances, the nurse can better understand the problem and make informed decisions moving forward. This foundational assessment is crucial before proceeding to formulate goals, evaluate outcomes, or consider risks and benefits. Options A, B, and C involve steps that should follow the initial assessment of the situation, making them less suitable as the initial action in this context.

3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

4. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and slowly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a panic attack, the immediate priority for the nurse is to provide support and reassurance to the client. Remaining with the client helps establish a sense of safety and trust, which can help calm the client during an episode of panic. Administering medication, encouraging physical activity, and deep breathing techniques are beneficial interventions, but offering reassurance and support should be the initial step to address the immediate emotional distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

5. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

• A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
• B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
• C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
• D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

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