ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which client behavior would the healthcare professional identify as characteristic of a manic episode?
- A. Sleeping excessively
- B. Excessive energy
- C. Decreased appetite
- D. Lack of interest in activities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals often experience heightened energy levels, increased goal-directed activity, and may engage in risky behaviors. This excessive energy is a key characteristic of manic episodes. Choice A, sleeping excessively, is more characteristic of a depressive episode. Choice C, decreased appetite, can be seen in various mood disorders but is not specific to manic episodes. Choice D, lack of interest in activities, is more indicative of a depressive episode rather than a manic episode. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these signs to provide appropriate care and support to individuals with bipolar disorder.
2. A client has been prescribed diazepam (Valium) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- C. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the sedative effects and increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset, but avoiding alcohol is crucial to ensure safe and effective use of diazepam. Choice B is partially correct, as taking the medication with food can indeed help with stomach upset, but it is not as crucial as avoiding alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose is dangerous and should never be done without healthcare provider approval.
3. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
4. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?
- A. Group therapy
- B. Behavioral rehearsal
- C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- D. Medication management
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Excessive worry
- D. Mania
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.
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