Nursing Elites

1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.

3. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?

• A. Antipsychotics
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antidepressants
• D. Cholinesterase inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
• C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
• D. Manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.

5. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

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