ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?
- A. Displacement
- B. Projection
- C. Reaction formation
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.
2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
- B. Avoid all social interactions
- C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
- D. Develop a daily routine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia should focus on promoting medication adherence, monitoring and reporting any medication side effects, and establishing a structured daily routine to support stability and well-being. Encouraging the client to avoid all social interactions is not appropriate as social support can be beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Social interactions can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve overall well-being, and provide emotional support. Therefore, advising the client to avoid all social interactions would not be in the best interest of their recovery and management of the condition.
3. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
4. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?
- A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
- B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
- C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
- D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.
5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client experiencing severe anxiety?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about their feelings.
- B. Provide a quiet and calm environment.
- C. Encourage the client to exercise vigorously.
- D. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of severe anxiety, creating a quiet and calm environment is crucial as it can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation. This environment can provide a sense of safety and security, which are essential for individuals experiencing heightened anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings may not be suitable during severe anxiety as it can further escalate distress by focusing on the source of anxiety. Vigorous exercise and group activities may not be appropriate initially, as they can increase arousal levels rather than promoting a sense of calm needed to manage severe anxiety.
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