Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
• D. Distract the client from the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations, providing reality-based feedback is a therapeutic intervention. This helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, aiding in reducing the impact of hallucinations. Encouraging the client to discuss the voices may validate the hallucinations, telling the client that the voices are not real dismisses their experience, and distracting the client may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations.

2. When planning care for a client with schizophrenia, which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage reality testing
• B. Provide opportunities for socialization
• C. Monitor for command hallucinations
• D. Promote adherence to medication regimen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia, encouraging reality testing is essential. This intervention assists the client in distinguishing between delusions and reality, aiding in their treatment. While providing opportunities for socialization can help reduce isolation, monitoring for command hallucinations is crucial for the client's safety. Promoting adherence to the medication regimen is vital for symptom management. Addressing delusional thoughts in a therapeutic manner is preferable to outright discouragement, fostering a supportive environment for the client.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Which approach involves surgically implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression?

• A. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
• B. Deep brain stimulation
• C. Vagus nerve stimulation
• D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep brain stimulation is a treatment approach that involves the surgical implantation of electrodes into specific areas of the brain to stimulate regions identified as underactive in depression. This method aims to modulate brain activity and has shown effectiveness in treating certain cases of depression.

5. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?

• A. I have been on this antidepressant for 3 days. I understand that the full effect may take weeks to occur.
• B. I am going to ask my nurse practitioner to discontinue my Prozac today and let me start taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor tomorrow.
• C. I may ask to have my medication changed to Wellbutrin due to the problems I am having being romantic with my wife.
• D. I realize that there are many antidepressants and it might take a while until we find the one that works best for me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.

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