Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects shouldn't the nurse monitor for?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Decreased need for sleep.' While antipsychotic medications can cause side effects like tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia, a decreased need for sleep is not a common side effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for the known side effects of antipsychotic medications to ensure early detection and appropriate management.

2. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Female
• B. 7 years old
• C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
• D. Outbursts occur at least once a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. When developing a care plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following interventions should not be included?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
• C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• D. Provide a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is essential to consider therapeutic interventions. Encouraging the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations is not recommended as it can reinforce their anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques, encouraging the expression of feelings, and providing a structured daily routine are beneficial strategies in managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting coping skills and emotional expression while fostering stability and predictability.

5. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on promoting activities, adequate nutrition, hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation. Verbalizing feelings is a crucial part of therapy for clients with depression as it helps in processing emotions and seeking support. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings is not appropriate and goes against therapeutic principles.

Similar Questions