Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

2. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should be identified as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Asthma
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypertension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication due to the potential for worsening bronchoconstriction and exacerbating respiratory symptoms. Choice B, diabetes mellitus, is not a contraindication for Propranolol. Choice C, hypertension, is actually an indication for Propranolol as it is commonly used to treat hypertension. Choice D, glaucoma, is not a contraindication for Propranolol use.

3. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

• A. 1000
• B. 1030
• C. 1100
• D. 1130

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

5. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

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