ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client with tobacco use disorder is being educated about Nicotine replacement therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid eating right before chewing a piece of nicotine gum.
- B. I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year.
- C. I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking during pregnancy.
- D. I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. To maximize the effectiveness of nicotine gum, the client should avoid eating or drinking 15 minutes before and while using it. This helps ensure proper absorption of nicotine through the oral mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of nicotine gum use can vary depending on the individual's needs and progress. Choice C is incorrect as nicotine gum should be used during pregnancy only under healthcare provider guidance. Choice D is incorrect because nicotine gum should be chewed slowly until a tingling sensation is felt, then parked between the cheek and gum until the tingling stops.
2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Fomepizole
- B. Naloxone
- C. Phytonadione
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum chloride.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is pregnant
- B. A client who has osteoarthritis
- C. A client who has a kidney stone
- D. A client who has a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.
5. What symptom would alert the healthcare professional to hold Albuterol and notify a healthcare professional immediately?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Paradoxical bronchospasm
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If a patient experiences paradoxical bronchospasm after taking Albuterol, the medication should be withheld, and a healthcare professional should be notified immediately. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a serious adverse reaction where the airways constrict instead of dilating, leading to breathing difficulties. This condition requires prompt medical attention to assess and manage the patient's respiratory status. The other options, insomnia, nausea, and headache, are not typically associated with the need to hold Albuterol and notify a healthcare professional immediately.
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