Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not directly related to the drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

• A. Nausea
• B. Renal dysfunction
• C. Anemia
• D. Muscle wasting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ibuprofen is known to cause adverse effects such as nausea, renal dysfunction, and anemia. However, muscle wasting is not a common toxicity associated with Ibuprofen use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Naloxone
• D. Toradol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

3. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

5. A client has a new prescription for Etravirine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client is to take Etravirine at the same time every day. This ensures consistent blood levels and effectiveness of the medication. Consistent timing is essential to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and avoid missing doses. Choices A and B are incorrect because Etravirine should not necessarily be taken with or without food; it is more important to take it consistently. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to take Etravirine at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

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