a nurse is caring for an older adult client in a long term care facility who has hypothyroidism and a new prescription for levothyroxine which of the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be initiated at a low dose and titrated gradually over several weeks to achieve therapeutic levels. This approach helps to minimize the risk of adverse effects, particularly in older adult clients who may be more sensitive to medication changes. Starting at a low dose allows for close monitoring of the client's response and adjustment of the dosage as needed to optimize treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose can increase the risk of adverse effects and is not the recommended approach. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the initial dosage throughout the treatment may not achieve optimal therapeutic levels. Choice C is incorrect because adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not the standard practice for initiating Levothyroxine treatment.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

3. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

4. A client has a new prescription for Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should be identified as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bruising is an adverse effect to be monitored when a client is prescribed Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction due to its association with increased bleeding risk. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect can lead to bruising and other signs of bleeding, necessitating close observation to prevent complications. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically recognized adverse effects of Aspirin therapy for myocardial infarction prevention.

5. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.

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