which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Stage 3 pressure ulcers are characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue, which requires a moist environment for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help maintain a moist wound environment, promote healing, and provide protection. Providing wound debridement may be necessary but is not the priority intervention at this stage. Changing the dressing daily is important for wound care but not the priority over creating an optimal healing environment. Elevating the affected area can help with circulation and reduce swelling, but it is not the priority intervention for a stage 3 pressure ulcer.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metformin with food helps reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect because metformin does not typically cause urine discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality rather than weight gain.

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