ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Muscle spasms.
- C. Cool, moist skin.
- D. Incisional pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.
2. A client who has a new prescription for omeprazole is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication before meals.
- B. I should take this medication with an antacid.
- C. I should avoid taking this medication at bedtime.
- D. I should take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking omeprazole before meals is important as it improves the medication's effectiveness in reducing gastric acid production. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as it can interfere with its absorption. Option C is incorrect because omeprazole is usually recommended to be taken before breakfast, not at bedtime. Option D is incorrect as omeprazole is generally taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before a meal.
3. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nausea.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of milk.
- C. Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.
- D. Report any muscle pain to your provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.' Visual disturbances can indicate digoxin toxicity, so it is essential for clients taking digoxin to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider. Option A is incorrect because the timing of digoxin administration is crucial, usually in the morning. Option B is inaccurate because digoxin should not be taken with milk as it can affect its absorption. Option D is not directly associated with digoxin use and should not be the priority instruction for a client on this medication.
4. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?
- A. Semi-Fowler's position
- B. Trendelenburg position
- C. Prone position
- D. Supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.
5. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.
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