Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Muscle spasms.
• C. Cool, moist skin.
• D. Incisional pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.

2. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Crackles in the lung bases
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.

4. A client with a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience chest pain.
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken every morning before breakfast to enhance absorption and maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because chest pain is not a common side effect of levothyroxine and stopping the medication abruptly can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may result in decreased absorption due to interactions with food and other medications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

Similar Questions