Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Muscle spasms.
• C. Cool, moist skin.
• D. Incisional pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Apples.
• B. White bread.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Grapes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.

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