a nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy what should the nurse report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia. Repositioning the patient, providing humidified air, and chest physiotherapy may be beneficial in certain situations but are not the primary interventions for hypoxia. Administering oxygen is crucial to quickly alleviate hypoxia and support the patient's respiratory function.

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