a nurse is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation which of the following medications should the nurse adm
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. When caring for a client with asthma experiencing an acute exacerbation, which medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that acts rapidly to dilate the airways, making it the first-line medication for acute symptom relief. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control, not for immediate relief. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation and is also used for long-term control, not for immediate relief during an exacerbation.

2. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.

3. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.

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