a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

3. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

4. When collecting a sputum specimen from a client with tuberculosis, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up. Collecting sputum early in the morning provides the best sample for tuberculosis testing. Option B is incorrect because waiting a day can decrease the accuracy of the specimen. Option C is incorrect as it does not specify the optimal timing for specimen collection. Option D is incorrect as sterile gloves should be worn for infection control but do not specifically relate to the timing of specimen collection.

5. A client has thrombocytopenia. What action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a low platelet count, leading to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reducing the likelihood of straining during bowel movements and subsequent bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) pertains more to infection control than addressing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is not directly associated with managing thrombocytopenia symptoms.

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