Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

• A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
• B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
• C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
• D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

2. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 60/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum potassium 4 mEq/L.
• D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.

4. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

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