a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder which of the following interventions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.

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