a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder which of the following interventions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

5. How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.

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