Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the test.
• B. You should drink 8 oz of water 1 hour before the test.
• C. You should take an antacid before the test.
• D. You should drink a glass of milk 1 hour before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate results. Choice A is the correct instruction for the client preparing for a glucose tolerance test. Drinking water, taking an antacid, or consuming milk before the test can interfere with the accuracy of the results. Water or any other substance might affect the concentration of glucose in the blood, leading to inaccurate test results. Antacids and milk can also interfere with the test outcome. Therefore, the client should follow the instruction to fast for 8 hours before the test.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer IV dextrose
• B. Administer oral glucose
• C. Monitor blood sugar levels
• D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.

3. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. 1+ protein in the urine
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Cheddar cheese
• D. Whole wheat bread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.

Similar Questions