Nursing Elites

1. Which best describes a tertiary prevention strategy?

• A. Providing rehabilitation services
• B. Screening for early signs of disease
• C. Educating the public about healthy lifestyles
• D. Offering health education workshops

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing rehabilitation services. Tertiary prevention involves interventions that focus on managing and improving the outcomes of existing conditions. Rehabilitation services fall under tertiary prevention as they aim to help individuals recover and manage long-term health issues. Screening for early signs of disease (Choice B) is part of secondary prevention, while educating the public about healthy lifestyles (Choice C) and offering health education workshops (Choice D) typically fall under primary prevention strategies.

2. Which of the following is not a common causative agent of bacterial meningitis?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Staphylococcus aureus
• D. Haemophilus influenzae

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is not a typical causative agent of bacterial meningitis. This bacterium is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections rather than meningitis.

3. When studying for an epidemiology quiz, what does public health nursing surveillance involve?

• A. Having all carriers transferred to one main facility for care
• B. Gathering data to work toward primary illness prevention
• C. Establishing the incubation period of a disease
• D. Determining the colonization rate of the disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Public health nursing surveillance involves the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for the purpose of preventing and controlling diseases. By gathering data, public health nurses can identify trends, risks, and patterns to implement interventions aimed at preventing illnesses in communities. This process is essential for early detection, timely response, and effective prevention strategies.

4. What is the term for creating a surgical airway in the front of the neck (cervical region) to remove copious secretions?

• A. Bronchoscopy
• B. Tracheostomy
• C. Thoracentesis
• D. Underwater seal drainage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheostomy is the process of surgically creating an airway in the front of the neck to aid in breathing or remove secretions from the airway. Bronchoscopy involves visualizing the airways using a scope, not creating an airway. Thoracentesis is the procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space around the lungs, not related to creating an airway. Underwater seal drainage is a method used in chest drainage systems to remove air or fluid from the pleural space, not the creation of an airway.

5. Which of the following is the best intervention for a client with less than 6 months to live who is seeking comfort care?

• A. Set up a meeting with the hospice team
• B. Arrange a meeting with the client’s family
• C. Discuss advance directives (DNR & living will) with the patient
• D. Ask the provider to decrease the patient’s heart medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting up a meeting with the hospice team is the most appropriate intervention for a client with less than 6 months to live who is seeking comfort care. Hospice care focuses on providing comfort and support for individuals with terminal illnesses. By involving the hospice team, the client can receive specialized care aimed at improving their quality of life and managing symptoms effectively during this challenging time.

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