ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. Which action best demonstrates respect for autonomy when working with a client?
- A. Asks if the client has questions before signing a consent form
- B. Provides the client with accurate information when questioned
- C. Honors the promises made to the client and family
- D. Ensures fair treatment of the client compared to others
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respect for autonomy involves allowing individuals to make decisions about their care. By asking if the client has questions before signing a consent form, the nurse is respecting the client's right to make informed choices and decisions regarding their healthcare. This action supports the principle of self-determination and autonomy in healthcare decision-making.
2. A client is prescribed prednisone for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every day to prevent asthma attacks.
- B. I will avoid people with infections while taking this medication.
- C. I will take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I feel fine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because prednisone, a corticosteroid, should not be abruptly stopped. It must be tapered off gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper understanding of the medication's use and side effects, emphasizing the importance of daily intake, infection prevention, and taking it with food to avoid stomach upset.
3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Apneustic respirations
- C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
4. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Decrease the heparin rate.
- B. Increase the heparin rate.
- C. No change to the heparin rate.
- D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Stridor
- B. Copious oral secretions
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.
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