Nursing Elites

1. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Temporary field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations and expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are well-equipped to handle military personnel and are strategically placed for operational efficiency. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not have the specialized care and resources required for military personnel. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, cater to veterans rather than active-duty personnel in theater. Choice D, temporary field hospitals, might not provide the comprehensive care and resources needed for an extended period of treatment.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.

3. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

• A. Iron absorption is reduced
• B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
• C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
• D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.

4. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
• C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
• D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.

5. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

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