whenever possible patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations and expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are well-equipped to handle military personnel and are strategically placed for operational efficiency. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not have the specialized care and resources required for military personnel. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, cater to veterans rather than active-duty personnel in theater. Choice D, temporary field hospitals, might not provide the comprehensive care and resources needed for an extended period of treatment.

2. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.

3. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.

4. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.

5. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.

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