Nursing Elites

1. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
• C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
• D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. Leaning forward can help bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect the rub. Option A (Notifying the healthcare provider) is incorrect because further assessment is needed before escalating the situation. Option B (Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved) is incorrect as the absence of a friction rub does not necessarily mean resolution. Option D (Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube) is incorrect as this intervention is not indicated for the absence of a friction rub.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

3. The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?

• A. Keep the area between the toes dry.
• B. Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes.
• C. Cut toenails straight across.
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.

4. What condition should a patient on long-term steroid therapy be monitored for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypertension
• D. Osteoporosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis. Prolonged use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with steroid-induced diabetes rather than long-term steroid use. Hypothyroidism is not a typical complication of long-term steroid therapy. While steroids can contribute to hypertension, osteoporosis is a more prominent concern in this scenario.

5. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

• A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
• B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
• C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
• D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.

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