Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

2. The use of the antibiotic neomycin may decrease the absorption of:

• A. Iron, copper, and zinc
• B. Protein and amino acids
• C. Fat-soluble vitamins
• D. Water-soluble vitamins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Neomycin can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamins A, D, E, and K. Choice A is incorrect because neomycin does not affect the absorption of iron, copper, and zinc. Choice B is incorrect as neomycin does not impact the absorption of protein and amino acids. Choice D is also incorrect as neomycin does not decrease the absorption of water-soluble vitamins like vitamin C and the B vitamins.

3. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

5. What are three major causes of atherosclerosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite
• B. High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking
• C. Constipation, peptic ulcer disease, and pancreatitis
• D. Kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking are three major causes of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is mainly attributed to the buildup of cholesterol-rich plaques in the arteries, high blood pressure causing damage to the arterial walls, and the harmful effects of cigarette smoking on blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary causes of atherosclerosis.

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