Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:

• A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
• B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
• C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
• D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.

2. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?

• A. Lymphokine-producing cells
• B. Cytotoxic T cells
• C. Helper T cells
• D. Macrophages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.

3. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During androgen therapy for hypogonadism, it is important to monitor liver function tests. Androgens can affect the liver, potentially leading to liver dysfunction. Monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels (Choice C) may be monitored for conditions like prostate cancer, but it is not directly related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism. A complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) may not show specific changes related to androgen therapy for hypogonadism.

4. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

• A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
• B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
• C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
• D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

5. What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

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