ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
2. The canola plant's genome is altered to produce an herbicide-resistant crop. The canola oil produced from this crop is an example of a:
- A. pesticide-free food.
- B. saturated fat food.
- C. genetically modified food.
- D. product that is pure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: genetically modified food. Canola plants with altered genomes to be herbicide-resistant are an example of genetically modified organisms (GMOs). Genetically modified foods have their genetic material modified for various purposes, such as enhancing resistance to pests, herbicides, or improving nutritional content. Choice A, 'pesticide-free food,' is incorrect because genetic modification does not necessarily make the food pesticide-free. Choice B, 'saturated fat food,' is incorrect as it does not relate to the genetic modification of the canola plant. Choice D, 'product that is pure,' is too vague and does not specifically address the genetic modification aspect of the canola plant.
3. A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Oral contraceptives can cause weight loss and increased energy levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives can cause increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.
- D. Oral contraceptives have no side effects.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.
4. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Decreased prostate size
- C. Increased prostate size
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased prostate size. Finasteride is a medication used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. By decreasing the size of the prostate, symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency are improved. Choice A is incorrect as the medication aims to decrease, not increase, urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because the goal of finasteride is to reduce, not increase, the prostate size. Choice D is also incorrect as finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure.
5. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Melanoma
- C. Atopic dermatitis
- D. Urticaria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.
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