Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

• A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
• B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
• C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

2. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

• A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
• B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
• C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
• D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

3. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

• A. Emotional stress
• B. Dietary indiscretion
• C. Physical overexertion
• D. Adequate rest and relaxation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

4. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:

• A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
• B. Increased cervical mucus production.
• C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
• D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.

5. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

• A. Dysplasia
• B. Metaplasia
• C. Hyperplasia
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

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