Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

• A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
• B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
• C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

2. The canola plant's genome is altered to produce an herbicide-resistant crop. The canola oil produced from this crop is an example of a:

• A. pesticide-free food.
• B. saturated fat food.
• C. genetically modified food.
• D. product that is pure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: genetically modified food. Canola plants with altered genomes to be herbicide-resistant are an example of genetically modified organisms (GMOs). Genetically modified foods have their genetic material modified for various purposes, such as enhancing resistance to pests, herbicides, or improving nutritional content. Choice A, 'pesticide-free food,' is incorrect because genetic modification does not necessarily make the food pesticide-free. Choice B, 'saturated fat food,' is incorrect as it does not relate to the genetic modification of the canola plant. Choice D, 'product that is pure,' is too vague and does not specifically address the genetic modification aspect of the canola plant.

3. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?

• A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
• B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
• C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
• D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.

4. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Sideroblastic anemia
• C. Pernicious anemia
• D. Hemolytic anemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.

5. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

• A. It is metabolized in the liver.
• B. It binds to acetylcholine.
• C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
• D. It causes phagocytosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

Similar Questions