Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Hypertensive emergency
• D. Tension headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.

2. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

3. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

• A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
• B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
• C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
• D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

4. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?

• A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
• B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
• C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
• D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.

5. In the ED, a homeless client is brought in with severe hypothermia. The police officers also state that they found a 'bottle of booze' on the sidewalk next to him. This puts the nurse on high alert since alcohol contributes to hypothermia by:

• A. interfering with the appetite center in the brain, causing the person to not respond to hunger cues.
• B. causing the person to have less insulation from body fat.
• C. dulling mental awareness, impairing judgment to seek shelter.
• D. increasing the basal metabolic rate, leading to faster depletion of ATP.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alcohol impairs judgment and dulls mental awareness, making a person less likely to seek shelter when experiencing hypothermia. This impaired judgment can lead to risky behaviors that exacerbate the effects of cold exposure. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol does not directly interfere with the appetite center in the brain to the extent described. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol consumption does not directly impact the amount of body fat present. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol does not increase the basal metabolic rate but rather slows it down.

Similar Questions