ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?
- A. Testosterone
- B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen
- D. Lactate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.
2. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
- B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. The patient's viral load
- D. The patient's CD4 count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.
3. What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
- C. Consuming too much food at once
- D. Improved kidney function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.
4. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
- C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
- D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.
5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride has no impact on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.
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