Nursing Elites

1. When doing an initial assessment, the best way for you to identify the client’s priority problem is to:

• A. Interview the client for chief complaints and other symptoms
• B. Talk to the relatives to gather data about history of illness
• C. Do auscultation to check for chest congestion
• D. Do a physical examination while asking the client relevant questions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

2. What does a QRS Complex represent in an ECG reading?

• A. Atrial depolarization
• B. Ventricular repolarization
• C. Ventricular depolarization
• D. End of ventricular depolarization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The QRS Complex in an ECG reading represents ventricular depolarization, which is the process of the heart's ventricles preparing to contract by changing the electrical charge in the cell, hence choice 'C' is the correct answer. Choice 'A' is incorrect because atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave in an ECG reading, not the QRS Complex. Choice 'B' is incorrect as ventricular repolarization is depicted by the T wave, not the QRS Complex. Finally, choice 'D' is also incorrect because the QRS Complex is not the end of ventricular depolarization, but the process itself.

3. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?

• A. myasthenia gravis
• B. achalasia
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. cerebral palsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.

4. Which of the four phases of emergency management is defined as 'sustained action that reduces or eliminates long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards and their effects'?

• A. Recovery
• B. Mitigation
• C. Response
• D. Preparedness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Mitigation.' Mitigation is the phase of emergency management that focuses on sustained actions aimed at reducing or eliminating long-term risks to people and property from natural hazards. Recovery (A) involves restoring and rebuilding infrastructure, housing, and services after a disaster. Response (C) deals with immediate actions taken to save lives and prevent further damage during a disaster. Preparedness (D) involves planning, training, and equipping organizations and communities to effectively respond to emergencies.

5. A nurse is teaching a parent about appropriate snack choices for her 9-month-old infant. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?

• A. Skim milk
• B. Unsalted popcorn
• C. Graham crackers
• D. Raw carrots

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Graham crackers are an appropriate snack choice for a 9-month-old infant due to their texture and ease of consumption. Skim milk (Choice A) is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to the potential risk of developing milk allergies. Unsalted popcorn (Choice B) can be a choking hazard for infants. Raw carrots (Choice D) are a potential choking hazard for a 9-month-old infant and may be difficult for them to chew and digest.

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