Nursing Elites

1. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?

• A. severity of illness
• B. presence of pressure sores
• C. localized edema
• D. generalized weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.

2. Which animal-derived food contains the most significant level of carbohydrates?

• A. Egg
• B. Beef
• C. Milk
• D. Poultry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Milk contains the most significant level of carbohydrates among animal-derived foods. Milk and milk products supply significant quantities of carbohydrate in the form of lactose. Eggs, beef, and poultry are not significant sources of carbohydrates compared to milk. In cheese making, lactose is removed as a by-product, reducing the carbohydrate content further.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings indicates the therapy is effective?

• A. Client has soft, formed bowel movements.
• B. Client’s mucous membranes are pink.
• C. Client reports ability to complete ADLs.
• D. Client’s blood glucose level is within the expected reference range.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because having a blood glucose level within the expected reference range indicates that parenteral nutrition is effectively meeting the client's nutritional needs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because soft, formed bowel movements, pink mucous membranes, and the ability to complete activities of daily living do not directly reflect the effectiveness of parenteral nutrition therapy.

4. Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?

• A. The DRIs replace the older recommended daily allowances.
• B. Current DRIs attempt to estimate required nutrients to improve long-term health.
• C. DRIs specifically address individuals whose requirements are affected by a disease state.
• D. The DRIs attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. DRIs do not specifically address individuals with disease states; they are intended for the general healthy population. Choice A is correct because DRIs indeed replace the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate required nutrients to enhance long-term health. Choice D is accurate as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

5. What level of sodium restriction would be included as part of nutrition therapy for heart failure?

• A. Less than 500 mg per day
• B. 1000 mg to 1500 mg per day
• C. 1500 mg to 3000 mg per day
• D. 3000 to 3500 mg per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 1500 mg to 3000 mg per day. This is the level of sodium restriction typically recommended for heart failure patients. It helps manage fluid retention and reduce blood pressure, which are both crucial in treating heart failure. A sodium intake of less than 500 mg per day (Choice A) might be too restrictive and is not typically recommended. Similarly, an intake of 1000 mg to 1500 mg per day (Choice B) falls short of the recommended range. Lastly, an intake of 3000 to 3500 mg per day (Choice D) exceeds the recommended upper limit, potentially exacerbating fluid retention and high blood pressure.

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