Nursing Elites

1. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?

• A. severity of illness
• B. presence of pressure sores
• C. localized edema
• D. generalized weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.

2. The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is:

• A. Industry vs. Inferiority
• B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
• C. Integrity vs. Despair
• D. Generativity vs. Stagnation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

3. In order to establish and maintain successful breastfeeding, which practice should a lactating mother try to follow?

• A. Initiate breastfeeding within 24 hours of birth
• B. Breastfeed on a schedule of every 2 to 3 hours
• C. Give a pacifier to an infant between feedings
• D. Find a breastfeeding support group to troubleshoot problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finding a breastfeeding support group is crucial for a lactating mother to establish and maintain successful breastfeeding. This group can offer valuable advice, tips, and encouragement, helping the mother troubleshoot any issues that may arise during breastfeeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because breastfeeding is a natural process that should not be overly scheduled, and giving a pacifier between feedings can interfere with establishing proper breastfeeding techniques.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. Dental hygienists should not encourage patients with eating disorders such as bulimia to brush immediately after vomiting because self-induced vomiting causes erosion of tooth enamel and dentin hypersensitivity.

• A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
• B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related
• C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
• D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected question emphasizes that patients with eating disorders like bulimia should not brush immediately after vomiting as it can worsen enamel erosion due to the acidic content in the mouth. The correct answer is D because patients should rinse with water or a fluoride mouthwash instead of brushing to protect their teeth. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging patients to brush after vomiting is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as the reason provided is valid but not suitable for the action of encouraging brushing. Choice C is incorrect as the reason for not brushing after vomiting is to prevent enamel erosion.

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