ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?
- A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
- B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
- C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
- D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.
2. In taking the client’s blood pressure, the nurse should position the client’s arm:
- A. At the level of the heart
- B. Slightly above the level of the heart
- C. At the 5th intercostals space midclavicular line
- D. Below the level of the heart
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper patient positioning is essential for maximizing lung expansion and promoting the drainage of secretions. Postural drainage techniques rely on gravity to help clear different lung segments, which is critical in preventing complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia in immobilized patients.
3. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?
- A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
- B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
- C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
- D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.
4. Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
- A. activate vitamin D
- B. stimulate appetite
- C. lower cholesterol
- D. mobilize fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that helps mobilize fluids by increasing urine output, often used to treat conditions like edema and heart failure.
5. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Night blindness
- C. Bone pain
- D. Rashes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.
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