ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. Ms. ANA had a car accident where he lost her boyfriend. As a result, she became passive and submissive. The nurse knows that the type of crisis Ms. ANA is experiencing is:
- A. Developmental crisis
- B. Maturational crisis
- C. Situational crisis
- D. Social Crisis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
2. Which is the best description of a full-liquid diet?
- A. Most suitable for individuals with an ileostomy
- B. Suitable for individuals with lactose intolerance
- C. Contains low saturated fat and high fiber
- D. Provides adequate nutrients and is easily digested
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a full-liquid diet is designed to provide adequate nutrients while being easily digested. Choices A and B are incorrect because a full-liquid diet is not specifically tailored for individuals with an ileostomy or lactose intolerance. Choice C is also incorrect as it describes characteristics that are not defining features of a full-liquid diet.
3. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
4. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?
- A. Marasmus
- B. Kwashiorkor
- C. Anemia
- D. Noma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.
5. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-esteem disturbance
- B. Impaired urinary elimination
- C. Impaired skin integrity
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Risk for infection.' An indwelling urinary catheter poses a significant risk for infection due to its invasive nature and the increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections. While 'B: Impaired urinary elimination' and 'C: Impaired skin integrity' may also be concerns for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter, the immediate risk of infection is the priority. 'A: Self-esteem disturbance' is not typically a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter because the focus is primarily on infection prevention and management to ensure patient safety and well-being.
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