ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Which statement indicates understanding of a low-fiber diet?
- A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
- B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
- C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
- D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are low in fiber compared to the other options provided. Option A contains high-fiber vegetables (carrots and celery), option B includes a bran muffin which is fiber-rich, and option C involves oatmeal which is also a good source of fiber. Therefore, choosing canned peaches aligns with a low-fiber diet.
2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is developing strategies to promote increased food intake for an older adult client. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Offer sugar substitutes to increase the client’s appetite.
- B. Provide opportunities to eat three large meals per day.
- C. Provide entertainment while the client is eating.
- D. Offer finger foods at mealtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for promoting increased food intake for an older adult client is to offer finger foods at mealtime. Finger foods are easier for older adults to manage, making eating less cumbersome and more enjoyable, which can help increase overall food intake. Providing sugar substitutes (Choice A) may not necessarily increase appetite and could have negative health effects. Eating three large meals per day (Choice B) may be overwhelming and not suitable for older adults who may prefer smaller, more frequent meals. While providing entertainment (Choice C) during meals can be beneficial in some cases, it may not directly contribute to increased food intake as effectively as offering finger foods.
3. A nurse is providing MyPlate education to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which plate chosen by the client indicates the teaching was effective, according to the MyPlate guidelines?
- A. 1/2 of the plate is filled with carbohydrate foods, 1/4 filled with protein foods, and 1/4 filled with fruits and vegetables
- B. 1/2 of the plate is filled with protein foods, 1/4 filled with carbohydrates, and 1/4 filled with non-starchy vegetables
- C. 1/2 of the plate is filled with carbohydrates, 1/4 filled with protein foods, and 1/4 filled with non-starchy vegetables
- D. 1/2 of the plate is filled with non-starchy vegetables, 1/4 filled with protein foods, and 1/4 filled with carbohydrate foods
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This option reflects the MyPlate guidelines for managing diabetes effectively. In diabetes management, it is essential to focus on non-starchy vegetables, appropriate protein portions, and controlled carbohydrate intake. Option A places too much emphasis on carbohydrates, which may not be suitable for diabetes. Option B swaps the proportions of protein and carbohydrates, which is not in line with the recommended distribution. Option C places too much emphasis on carbohydrates and lacks the emphasis on non-starchy vegetables, making it less suitable for diabetes management.
4. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
5. Which is most likely to initiate periodontal disease?
- A. Nutrient deficiencies
- B. Nutrient excesses
- C. Nutrient imbalances
- D. Plaque biofilm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Plaque biofilm is the primary initiator of periodontal disease, as it harbors bacteria that can lead to inflammation and destruction of the periodontal tissues.
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