what symptom would most likely be associated with late dumping syndrome
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Nursing Elites

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1. What symptom would most likely be associated with late dumping syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is the most likely symptom associated with late dumping syndrome. Late dumping syndrome occurs when blood sugar levels drop rapidly after eating due to rapid gastric emptying. While abdominal cramps, nausea, and diarrhea can occur with dumping syndrome, confusion is specifically linked to late dumping syndrome due to hypoglycemia.

2. A nurse is providing MyPlate education to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which plate chosen by the client indicates the teaching was effective, according to the MyPlate guidelines?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This option reflects the MyPlate guidelines for managing diabetes effectively. In diabetes management, it is essential to focus on non-starchy vegetables, appropriate protein portions, and controlled carbohydrate intake. Option A places too much emphasis on carbohydrates, which may not be suitable for diabetes. Option B swaps the proportions of protein and carbohydrates, which is not in line with the recommended distribution. Option C places too much emphasis on carbohydrates and lacks the emphasis on non-starchy vegetables, making it less suitable for diabetes management.

3. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.

4. A nurse is initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client who has a new gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is essential to maintain tube patency and prevent blockages. This action helps ensure the continuous flow of enteral feedings without obstruction. Measuring the client’s gastric residual every 12 hours (Choice A) is important but not the priority when initiating enteral feedings. Obtaining the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hours (Choice B) is unnecessary and not directly related to tube feeding initiation. Keeping the client’s head elevated at 15° during feedings (Choice C) is a good practice to prevent aspiration, but tube flushing is more crucial to prevent tube occlusion.

5. Which food provides a 1-ounce serving of grains for a preschool child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 cup of ready-to-eat cereal flakes. For a preschool child, 1 cup of ready-to-eat cereal flakes provides a 1-ounce serving of grains, meeting the requirement. Choice B, 1⁄2 slice of whole wheat bread, is not the correct answer as it does not constitute a 1-ounce serving of grains. Similarly, choice C, 1⁄2 of a 6-inch flour tortilla, does not offer a 1-ounce serving of grains. Choice D, 1 cup of cooked rice, also does not provide a 1-ounce serving of grains for a preschool child, making it an incorrect choice.

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