Nursing Elites

1. What symptom would most likely be associated with late dumping syndrome?

• A. abdominal cramps
• B. nausea
• C. diarrhea
• D. confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is the most likely symptom associated with late dumping syndrome. Late dumping syndrome occurs when blood sugar levels drop rapidly after eating due to rapid gastric emptying. While abdominal cramps, nausea, and diarrhea can occur with dumping syndrome, confusion is specifically linked to late dumping syndrome due to hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse is correct in performing suctioning when she applies the suction intermittently during:

• A. Insertion of the suction catheter
• B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter
• C. both insertion and withdrawing of the suction catheter
• D. When the suction catheter tip reaches the bifurcation of the trachea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

3. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

• A. Remove the parenteral nutrition solution from the refrigerator 2 hours before infusion.
• B. Remove unused parenteral nutrition after 12 hours of use.
• C. Monitor daily laboratory values and report abnormalities as needed.
• D. Monitor the flow rate of the parenteral nutrition carefully and adjust it if necessary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

4. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

5. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are the:

• A. physician and nurse
• B. physician and pharmacist
• C. nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: clinical dietitian and pharmacist. Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work closely together to monitor and manage drug-nutrient interactions. While physicians and nurses play essential roles in patient care, they are not typically the primary professionals involved in monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

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