ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.
2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized swelling and redness
- C. Fever and swelling
- D. Weakness and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.
3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.
4. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. Drainage in the chest tube
- C. A blocked chest tube
- D. Normal chest tube function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.
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