ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?
- A. Monitor lung sounds
- B. Check oxygen saturation
- C. Assess for cough
- D. Assess for fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Serum glucose level
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum calcium level
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the role of cortisol in promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease is not typically associated with alterations in serum potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding
- B. Administer the feeding using a large-bore syringe
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees
- D. Replace the feeding bag every 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Almonds
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Chicken breast
- D. Pasta
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
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