Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor serum creatinine
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor urine output
• D. Monitor potassium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
• B. Increase your intake of whole grains.
• C. Eat 3 large meals daily.
• D. Consume foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent another heart attack.
• B. I should expect to experience chest pain when I exercise.
• C. I will increase my intake of saturated fats.
• D. I will participate in a cardiac rehabilitation program.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing the intake of saturated fats can raise cholesterol levels, which is not recommended after a myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements indicating a good understanding of post-myocardial infarction care. Taking a daily aspirin can help prevent another heart attack, experiencing chest pain with exercise is a common expectation post-myocardial infarction, and participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program is important for recovery and improving heart health.

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