Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed home oxygen. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Check your oxygen equipment daily for proper function.
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate if you feel short of breath.
• C. Store your oxygen tanks lying flat on the floor.
• D. It is safe to smoke as long as you are more than 10 feet from the oxygen source.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is to advise the client to check the oxygen equipment daily for proper function. This is crucial to ensure the client's home oxygen therapy is working effectively and safely. Choice B is incorrect because adjusting the oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored upright, not lying flat. Choice D is incorrect and unsafe advice, as smoking near an oxygen source can lead to a fire hazard.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• B. Take this medication with a meal.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
• C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.

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