Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the healthcare provider provide?

• A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
• B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
• C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
• D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for structured meal planning in individuals with diabetes. These lists categorize foods based on macronutrient content and help individuals plan balanced meals to manage blood sugar levels effectively. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine are important but may not be as specific to meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is crucial but not the primary focus when providing dietary instructions.

5. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage staff to implement the principle of paternalism when a client is having difficulty making a choice
• B. Tell staff to explain procedures to clients before obtaining informed consent
• C. Instruct unit staff to share personal experiences to help clients make decisions
• D. Develop a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

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