Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take this medication for 3 months.
• B. I will take this medication with an antacid.
• C. I will avoid foods that contain iodine.
• D. I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast." Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning before breakfast to improve absorption and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of levothyroxine therapy is usually long-term and not limited to 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine should not be taken with antacids as they may decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to avoid foods that contain iodine while taking levothyroxine.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
• D. This medication decreases my appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

Similar Questions