what is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which action by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a mechanical lift to move a client.' Using a mechanical lift is an essential ergonomic principle to prevent injury and ensure safe client handling. Choice A is incorrect because standing with feet together when lifting a client can lead to instability and improper weight distribution. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's head of bed before pulling the client up does not primarily relate to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect because while using a gait belt is important for assisting clients with mobility, it is not specifically related to ergonomic principles for safe handling.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-op to monitor for complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs. Post-operative patients need close monitoring of their vital signs to detect early signs of complications such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. While monitoring the surgical site is also important for signs of infection, assessing vital signs takes precedence as it provides immediate information about the patient's overall condition. Checking blood glucose levels may be essential for specific patients but is not the primary assessment for monitoring post-op complications. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs as it indicates respiratory issues rather than providing a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition.

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