Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

2. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
• D. Heart rate of 72/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased skin turgor.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 88/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated, indicating a possible infection or inflammatory response, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client postoperative, so they do not require immediate reporting. Elevated temperature can be a sign of infection or other complications, making it a priority for reporting and further assessment.

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