Nursing Elites

1. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. Fractured tibia.
• C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
• D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

2. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?

• A. Quality improvement
• B. Patient safety
• C. Evidence-based practice
• D. Informatics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.

3. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking this medication with food.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.
• D. I will take this medication with a high-protein snack.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need for suctioning?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Oxygen saturation 96%.
• C. Clear lung sounds.
• D. Productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate. An increased respiratory rate suggests the client is having difficulty clearing secretions and may require suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Clear lung sounds suggest good air entry without the need for suctioning. A productive cough, although a symptom of pneumonia, does not directly indicate the need for suctioning.

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