a nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community to which of the following types of
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has DVT. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with DVT is to elevate the affected extremity when in bed. Elevation helps reduce swelling by promoting venous return. Limiting fluid intake could lead to dehydration and is not recommended. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction and should be avoided in DVT.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

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