a nurse is teaching a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease gerd about dietary management which of the following instructions should the nurs
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ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.

3. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.

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