what is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

3. A client scheduled for electromyography (EMG) will have small needle electrodes inserted into the muscles. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to assess muscle weakness and nerve responses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because radioisotope is not used in EMG, flushing is not a typical occurrence, and claustrophobia is more relevant for imaging procedures like MRI or CT scans, not EMG.

4. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.

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