ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What does continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. Normal chest tube function
- C. A blocked chest tube
- D. Continuous drainage from the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This occurs when air is entering the system from the outside, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not a sign of normal chest tube function. Choice C is incorrect because a blocked chest tube would typically exhibit no bubbling or fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Choice D is incorrect as continuous drainage would not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber.
2. A patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse needs electrical intervention. What is the appropriate action?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Synchronized cardioversion
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, the appropriate action is synchronized cardioversion. Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing is typically used for bradycardias. Medication administration may be considered in stable ventricular tachycardia cases but electrical intervention is preferred for immediate correction in this scenario.
3. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A thrombotic stroke typically presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke, which often manifests with sudden and severe symptoms like loss of consciousness (choice B), severe headache and confusion (choice C), or loss of sensation in the affected limb (choice D). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes.
4. During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?
- A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
- B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
- C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
- D. To prevent infection in the burned area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.
5. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
- C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.
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