what dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with gerd
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

2. What does continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system. This occurs when air is entering the system from the outside, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not a sign of normal chest tube function. Choice C is incorrect because a blocked chest tube would typically exhibit no bubbling or fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Choice D is incorrect as continuous drainage would not cause bubbling in the water seal chamber.

3. What are the dietary instructions for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function in such patients. Increasing protein intake, as mentioned in choice A, is not recommended due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. While reducing sodium intake, as in choice B, is relevant for managing blood pressure, it is not specifically related to pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Choice C, reducing potassium intake, is important for patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary instruction for those with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

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