Nursing Elites

1. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?

• A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
• B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
• C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
• D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.

2. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

3. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and expresses concern about hair loss. What is the best response?

• A. Reassure the client that hair loss is not permanent.
• B. Provide resources for wigs or hairpieces.
• C. Encourage the client to cut their hair short in advance.
• D. Advise the client that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response when a client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss is to advise them that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss. This response provides accurate information to the client about the side effect they are experiencing. Choice A is incorrect because it may provide false reassurance as for some individuals, hair loss can be a challenging experience. Choice B is not the best initial response as addressing the client's concerns and providing information should come first. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as cutting hair short may not necessarily prevent hair loss and does not address the client's concerns about the temporary nature of chemotherapy-induced hair loss.

4. A nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record. What is the appropriate action?

• A. Ask the nurse for clarification about the record.
• B. Report the discrepancy to the pharmacy.
• C. Report the issue to the nurse manager immediately.
• D. Ignore the discrepancy as a clerical error.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action when a nurse manager notices a discrepancy in a nurse's narcotics record is to report the discrepancy to the pharmacy. Reporting such discrepancies is crucial to ensure accountability and patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse manager should not confront the nurse directly without proper investigation. Choice C is incorrect because reporting to the nurse manager may not address the issue effectively. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the discrepancy can compromise patient safety and violates protocols.

5. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who has received general anesthesia and has a manifestation of malignant hyperthermia. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dantrolene is the medication of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening reaction to general anesthesia. It works by inhibiting the release of calcium ions in skeletal muscle cells, preventing muscle contracture and hypermetabolism. Acetaminophen (Choice A) and ibuprofen (Choice B) are not indicated for treating malignant hyperthermia. Diazepam (Choice D) may be used to control muscle spasms but is not the first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia.

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