ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?
- A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
- B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
- C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
- D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.
2. A patient is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate action?
- A. Assist the patient into a high Fowler's position.
- B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths and cough.
- D. Assess the patient's lung sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula is the immediate action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. This intervention helps to improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress promptly. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice A) may also be beneficial but providing oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to address the underlying hypoxemia. Encouraging deep breaths and coughing (choice C) may not be appropriate as the first action, especially without assessing the patient first. Assessing lung sounds (choice D) is essential but should follow the initial intervention of administering oxygen.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
4. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus with a group of clients in a rural health clinic. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid exposure to deer ticks.
- B. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- C. Use a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops.
- D. Plan outdoor activities after dusk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' This is an essential primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus as it helps prevent the breeding of mosquitoes that spread the virus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding exposure to deer ticks is more relevant for Lyme disease, using a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops is not a primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus, and planning outdoor activities after dusk does not directly address the prevention of West Nile virus transmission.
5. Which factor places a patient at the highest risk for infection?
- A. A healthy immune system
- B. Presence of chronic illness
- C. Being well-nourished
- D. Age over 65 years
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of chronic illness is the factor that places a patient at the highest risk for infection. Chronic illness can compromise the immune system's ability to fight off infections effectively, making individuals more susceptible to getting sick. Option A, a healthy immune system, actually reduces the risk of infection. Option C, being well-nourished, can support overall health but does not directly correlate with infection risk. While age over 65 years is a risk factor for certain infections due to age-related immune system changes, chronic illness has a more significant impact on infection risk.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access