a community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions which of the following diseases sho
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.

2. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates. This helps quickly increase the blood glucose levels in the patient, addressing the low blood sugar. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes (Choice A) may delay necessary intervention, encouraging a high-protein snack (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not rapidly increase blood sugar levels, and administering glucagon if the patient is unconscious (Choice D) is typically done in severe cases of hypoglycemia when the patient is unable to eat or drink.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

5. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.

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